Sharan Kumar #dunning-kruger #crackpot

Sharan Kumar #dunning-kruger #crackpot quora.com

Sanskrit, Greek and Latin are three different languages. Contrary to what some of the users have suggested, in truth, Sanskrit does NOT belong to the PIE family. There is nothing called Indo-European family of languages. Now, I might be mistaken for a Hindu fundamentalist. So let me expose this pseudo-theory called PIE. The hypothesis that Sanskrit and European languages including Greek are related is a "lie" for three reasons, among others -------------- (1) There is no language without culture: we have heard of French language and French culture; Greek language and Greek culture. The relationship between the two is such that one can NEVER exist without the other. There is no language without a culture and vice versa. If there really existed an Indo-European family of languages, how can they exist in isolation from an Indo-European family of cultures ??? Since an IE composite culture cannot be located anywhere in the world (indeed, there is Indian culture in opposition to European culture), the theory that there existed a PIE super family of languages is purely counter-intuitive, especially when there is no VALID proof (that fails the test of falsification), without which there is no question of empirical science.
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6 comments

(1) There is no language without culture: we have heard of French language and French culture; Greek language and Greek culture. The relationship between the two is such that one can NEVER exist without the other.

They wrote in English, a language that, in addition to being the current lingua france of the world, is the language of several distinct cultures, and, judging by the name, not Sharan Kumar’s ancestral tongue…

If there really existed an Indo-European family of languages, how can they exist in isolation from an Indo-European family of cultures ??? Since an IE composite culture cannot be located anywhere in the world (indeed, there is Indian culture in opposition to European culture

It’s really easy. Oversimplified, long ago, there were a collection of people who spoke what is now known as Proto-Indoeuropean. At some point, one group migrated to Persia and India, while the other migrated to Europe, and over time, the branches diverged. This deep branching is known as the Centum-Satem divide.
(And then, there’s an extinct branch of Indo-European from the Taklamakhan desert that does not fit into the pattern, but I can’t remember the name.)

PS:
Tocharian is the name.

Egypt, Cambodia & Mexico are three separate countries: but they created pyramids.

So "Alien vs. Predator" - in which the Yautja were worshipped as gods in those ancient civilisations - is a documentary, eh Shazza...?!

...and I say that as a graduate of the Ernest Pythagoras University of Advanced Sarcasm: studying under Prof. Doug Piranha, so you'd better not think that the above's a freebie for ya, OP.

But his brother Dr. Dinsdale will freely nail your head to the floor. As well as use his knowledge of Applied Footwear-Genitalia Juxtaposition: he's very interested in that.

If there really existed an Indo-European family of languages, how can they exist in isolation from an Indo-European family of cultures ???

If you compare reconstructed PIE with its earliest attested descendants and the cultures of their speakers, you can quite clearly see traces of a common ancestral culture.

So how do countries that speak the same language but have different cultures fit into your hypothesis?

There is no language without culture: we have heard of French language and French culture; Greek language and Greek culture. The relationship between the two is such that one can NEVER exist without the other.

Several cultures can share the same language: for exemple France, Québec and most of Africa use the French language, and several countries use Arabic; indeed Latin was used as a scholarly and religious language well after it was used as a day–to-day one.

Conversely, there’s languages without any definite culture, including Esperanto and the Latin I quoted earlier.

If there really existed an Indo-European family of languages, how can they exist in isolation from an Indo-European family of cultures ???

By genealogy: a group of language can beget other languages, whether by migration or temporal mutation. PIE was born in Central Asia, and from this place several groups left for other regions, bringing their languages, who evolved separately thereafter.

Yeah, everyone pretty well covered it. A language that no longer exists was spoken by ancestors of people who spoke another set of languages that no longer exist, until finally all their descendants speak the languages spoken now.

I’d also like to note the influence of Greek language and culture from the Phoenicians, a Semitic group of people, often considered by historians to likely be the Caananites referred to in the Bible. What connection might all the various Semite cultures and languages have with, say, Sanskrit?