even if it was true(the unscientific poll consisting of previous posters seems to say that no, it's not true), it would not mean that the attraction should be converted into sex, at all.
I'm married, and our marriage is an exclusive one(i.e. not an open, polyamorous thinggie). Once(just once, I'm very far from being a Chad), a beautiful colleague, who I was aroused for, made me a proposal. I said no. Because being aroused is not enough to justify sex. And when you're dealing with underage children, the other conditions are never filled.