What evidence is there in history to prove that the KJV is the final revelation to man. It was the book that God used during the reformation.......... Now this is not my opinion, it is a historical fact.
(For those not up to speed with the history of the reformation in Europe: the reformation is generally considered to have kicked off in 1517; the KJV was first produced in 1611.)
35 comments
"Now this is not my opinion, it is a historical fact."
Everytime I see these so-called "facts", I keep wondering if they flunked world history, history of religion, or logics. Oh wait, they're homeschooled. Useless fuckers.
So, your god needed a book to tell the peasants what their monarchy wanted. (basically, for the Pope to piss off) In order to accomplish this, a book was produced under the supervision of some English king a century later.
Uh huh...
King James took a look at it and thought,
"Yo, we could really use this to make them stupid peasant's work harder for us rich folks ! We'll just tell them that life sucks but everything afterwards is just gravy !"
Noone gets this ?
Let's see, Martin Luther wrote the 95 Theses in 1517, publicly burned a Papal Bull ordering him to recant in 1520, and translated the bible into German in 1534. This eventually lead in 1560 to the Scottish parliament formally rejecting the authority of the pope and prohibited the practise of catholic mass. Six years afterwards, in 1566, the future King James 6th of Scotland (later James 1st of England) was born.
The KJV was begun in 1604, inspired by the Lutherian bible, and first published in 1611, by which time the protestant movement had already spread throughout Germany much of northern Europe
Now, Donsky, let's look at an earlier comment of yours.
"Should we accept history? If it is harmony and does not contradict the Bible and the evidence is reliable of course we do."
The above facts are not only highly evidenced, but do not contradict any part of the bible, only your own misconceptions are challenged.
Five centuries of fail!
OK, so first history shows that KJV was important in the reformation, and then history shows that it didn't exist till after?
Is it really POSSIBLE to be this stupid, and not just a liar?
The KJV, when read correctly, contains instructions on how to build a time machine to go back in time roughly a century. If you've never come across that passage in Bible study, then I guess you're not really saved.
"If you've never come across that passage in Bible study, then I guess you're not really saved."
Hmm.. If you come across any passage in the bible, I would expect that would be defiling scripture.
I read that thread. Those people actually think Jesus spoke English - a language that didn't exist at the time - and one post, near the end of the thread, seems to claim that the KJV already existed when the NT was being written. (Time machines for Jesus??)
That's on top of the complete ignorance of history, language, chronology, etc.
It was the book that God used during the reformation...
Shit. g0d doesn't even fucking know how to read, much less write. That, bubba, is an historical fact.
Fascinating. Luther, Zwingli, Calvin, Müntzer, Tyndale... you know, the people who brought us the reformation (TM), all died well before the KJV was even started. In fact they all died before King James was born.
The same Reformation that was birthed by Martin Luther, the same author of "The Lies Of The Jews"?
PS I hope any LDS readers enjoy a moment of doubt, as well.
Confused?
So were we! You can find all of this, and more, on Fundies Say the Darndest Things!
To post a comment, you'll need to Sign in or Register . Making an account also allows you to claim credit for submitting quotes, and to vote on quotes and comments. You don't even need to give us your email address.
