I find it infuriating that researchers routinely reject or try to explain away with ridiculous assertions that R1b in Basques were introduced from male Indo-Europeans. If that is so, why do the Basques have the highest level of R1b and why do its surrounding regions such as Spain and Aquitaine have more R1b than those furter away, and inversely less R1a? The only logical explanation is that rhe R1b folks were speaking languages related to Vasconic rather than Indo-European. R1b would have been responsible for the Bell Beaker culture, and its wxpansion. Celtic would have been a hybridization of Vasconic and Indo-European in central Europe, resulting from an IE elite ruling over a mixed population. The hybridization produced a superior culture which took over former Vasconic lands, resulting in a first language shift. There remained many places which still spoke Vasconic even after the Celtic take over. The subsequent Latinization of these lands further eroded the position of Vasconic. The Aquitanian language thus disappeared completely. Yet these former Vasconic/Bell Beaker places exhibit the highest level of R1b, regardless of whether this was a local cultural expansion from Spain or a invasion.